INTRODUCTION TO PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY
TEST 2 - ANSWERS

1.    The Trade Winds blow from:
a.    the Subtropical High to the Equatorial Low
b.    the Subtropical High to the Subpolar Low
c.    the Doldrums to the Horse Latitudes
d.    the Polar High to the Subtropical High
e.    the Polar High to the Doldrums

2.    The trade winds blow from _____________________.
a.    southeast-to-northwest in southern hemisphere and northeast to southwest in the northern hemisphere.
b.    southwest-to-northeast in southern hemisphere and southeast to northwest in the northern hemisphere.
c.    east-to-west in the northern hemisphere and west-to-east in the southern hemisphere
d.    west-to-east in the northern hemisphere and east-to-west in the southern hemisphere
e.    southeast-to-northwest in southern hemisphere  and west-to-east in the northern hemisphere

3.    Which ocean currents are categorized as thermohaline?
a.    Upwelling currents
b.    Surface ocean currents
c.    Deep ocean currents
d.    Tropical gyres
e.    Subtropical gyres



4.    Which of the following statements about oceans gyres is incorrect?
a.    Gyres are ocean currents that form large continuously moving loops
b.    Corresponding subtropical gyres on either side of the equator both circulate in clockwise direction
c.    Gyres, such as the tropical gyres, are reinforced by wind belts such as the Trade Winds
d.    Gyres circulate in clockwise and anti-clockwise directions
e.    Gyres tend to form as cells elongated in an east-west directions


5.    Upwelling is:__________________
a.    the rising of cold water from the ocean depths in open water near the center of the earth's major oceans
b.    the rising of warm water from the ocean depths in open water near the center of the earth's major oceans
c.    the rising of cold water from ocean depths near coastlines
d.    the rising of warm water from ocean depths near coastlines.
e.    the development of eddies from ocean currents

6.    At the ITCZ __________.
a.    air descends to the surface creating a high pressure belt
b.    descending air collides with ascending air creating an unstable air interface
c.    air ascends from the surface to the tropopause and flows poleward
d.    air ascends from the upper atmosphere where it meets ionized air which is descending from the troposphere
e.    descending air, from the upper atmosphere, meets ionized air creating a high pressure belt

7.    The polar zones are associated with _________ pressure and ________ winds.
a.    low/ easterly
b.    low/ westerly
c.    high/ westerly
d.    high/ easterly
e.    high/ southerly

8.    Undulations in the westward flow of the upper-air westerlies are referred to as:
a.    Hadley cells
b.    gyres
c.    Jet Streams
d.    The Polar Front
e.    Rossby waves



9.    Which belt of winds corresponds with the subtropical high?
a.    doldrums
b.    horse latitudes
c.    southeast trades
d.    prevailing westerlies
e.    northeast trades

10.    The phenomena known as El Nino occurs in which ocean?
a.    Pacific
b.    Indian
c.    North Atlantic
d.    South Atlantic
e.    Arctic

11.    Which of the following statements concerning the temperature structure of the oceans is correct?
a.    In Arctic and Antarctic regions the thermocline is situated deeper than in other regions
b.    At the thermocline, temperatures decline gradually toward the sea floor
c.    Above the thermocline is a layer of cooler water
d.    Mid-latitudes develop a warm surface layer that deepens with wave action
e.    The warm surface layer persists all year at low latitudes

12.    The phenomena which leads to the development of tropical storms is:
a.    convergent lifting precipitation
b.    the inter-tropical convergence zone
c.    a polar outbreak
d.    a westerly wave
e.    an easterly wave

13.    Cold fronts compared to  warm fronts are:
a.    slower moving, with more intense rainfall
b.    faster moving, with more intense rainfall
c.    slower moving, with less intense rainfall
d.    faster moving, with less intense rainfall
e.    faster moving, with rainfall of long duration

14.    A hurricane's strongest winds and heaviest rainfall are found in __________.
a.    its northeast quarter
b.    its southern half
c.    its eye wall
d.    that portion that remains over land
e.    at the centre of the eye



15.    An Arctic air mass differs from a Polar air mass in that:
a.    Arctic air masses are colder than Polar air masses
b.    Arctic air masses contains less moisture than Polar air masses
c.    Arctic air masses originate from continental regions, whereas a Polar air masses originate over oceans
d.    Arctic air masses originate over Arctic oceans and nearby land, whereas Polar air masses form over a distinct latitude zone from 50 to 60 degrees latitude
e.    Arctic air masses originate over form over the eastern Arctic, whereas Polar air masses form over western Arctic oceans

16.    An air mass that forms over warm oceans from an equatorial region would be designated by which of the following symbols?
a.    cP
b.    cE
c.    mE
d.    mA
e.    mAA

17.    An air mass that forms over a mid-latitude ocean would be designated by which of the following symbols?
a.    mP
b.    mA
c.    cP
d.    cA
e.    mT

18.    Which of the following weather systems are associated with anticyclonic conditions?
a.    cool, wet weather
b.    fine rain of lasting duration
c.    thick cloud and heavy rain
d.    few clouds with no rain
e.    high wind speeds with no rain

19.    Which of the following is not one of the types of traveling cyclones?
a.    arctic wave cyclone
b.    tropical cyclone
c.    tornado
d.    midlatitude wave cyclone
e.    arctic ridge






20.    A wave begins to form in a wave cyclone during which of the following stages?
a.    early stage
b.    open stage
c.    closed stage
d.    occluded
e.    dissolving stage

21.    Which of the following statements describes the global paths of tropical cyclones.
a.    From east to west in the northern hemisphere and from west to east in the southern hemisphere
b.    From west to east in the northern hemisphere and from east to west in the southern hemisphere
c.    From east to west in both the northern and southern hemispheres
d.    From west to east in both the northern and southern hemispheres
e.    From east to west in the northern hemisphere and from south to north in the southern hemisphere

22.    Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the development of tornadoes?
a.    Cool, stable air associated with interior, mountain regions
b.    Warm, stable air associated with continental interiors
c.    Cold front lifts a warm front leading to turbulence
d.    Cold front lifts another cold front leading to alternating patches of stable and unstable air
e.    Warm dry front lifts a cool maritime front leading to turbulence

23.    What are hurricanes known as in the western Pacific region?
a.    hurricane
b.    typhoon
c.    cyclone
d.    depression
e.    wave cyclone

24.    Which of the following features does the Simpson-Safir Scale not describe with regard to hurricanes?
a.    rainfall amounts
b.    cyclone intensity
c.    central pressure
d.    storm surges
e.    mean wind speed




25.    Which of the following is not one of the primary factors that contribute to a storm surge?
a.    underwater shape of the bay floor
b.    low atmospheric pressures
c.    high wind speeds
d.    high intensity hurricane
e.    heavy rain

26.    Which cloud types are most associated with hurricanes?
a.    Cumulus near the center, with stratus at the outer edges of the storm
b.    Cumulonimbus near the center, with cirrus at the outer edges of the storm
c.    Stratus near the center, with cirrus at the outer edges of the storm
d.    Cumulonimbus near the center, with stratus at the outer edges of the storm
e.    Cirrus near the center, with stratus at the outer edges of the storm

27.    Uncharacteristic periods of low temperatures occasionally occur in low latitude regions. These are the result of:
a.    easterly wave
b.    westerly wave
c.    weak equatorial low
d.    polar outbreak
e.    mid latitude wave cyclones

28.    At each level in a food chain or food web, energy is lost through:
a.    decay
b.    respiration
c.    metabolism
d.    net photosynthesis
e.    gross photosynthesis

29.    Detritus is associated with which of the following processes?
a.    decay
b.    respiration
c.    metabolism
d.    net photosynthesis
e.    gross photosynthesis

30.    A deer grazing on grasses and shrubs would be said to occupy which level in a food chain?
a.    Producers
b.    First order consumers
c.    Second order consumers
d.    Third order consumers
e.    Decomposers


31.    Algae floating at the surface of a freshwater pond would be said to occupy which level in a food chain?
a.    Producers
b.    First order consumers
c.    Second order consumers
d.    Third order consumers
e.    Decomposers

32.    Which of the following is a consequence of the loss of energy as passes up the levels in a food chain?
a.    increasing gross photosynthesis
b.    decreasing gross photosynthesis
c.    decreasing net photosynthesis
d.    decreasing biomass
e.    increasing respiration

33.    The rate at which carbohydrate is accumulated in the tissues of plants within a given ecosystem is the:
a.    primary production
b.    net primary production
c.    biomass
d.    gross photosynthesis
e.    net photosynthesis

34.    Which of the following environments would have the highest net primary production on average?
a.    agricultural land
b.    tropical rainforest
c.    midlatitude grasslands
d.    open ocean
e.    lakes and streams

35.    Which of the following environments would have the lowest net primary production on average?
a.    agricultural land
b.    tropical rainforest
c.    midlatitude grasslands
d.    open ocean
e.    lakes and streams

36.    Which of the following statements best describes the process of  pyrolysis?
a.    burning of any type of biomass such as wood or crop residues
b.    controlled partial burning of biomass in an oxygen deficient environment
c.    complete burning of biomass with freely available oxygen
d.    controlled burning of biomasss with freely available oxygen
e.    controlled complete burning of biomass in an oxygen deficient environment

37.    Which of the following is the fuel used in pyrolysis?
a.    natural gas
b.    coal
c.    wood
d.    biogas
e.    charcoal

38.    The fundamental role played by an organism as well as the space it inhabits is referred to as a/an:
a.    sere
b.    bioclimatic frontier
c.    habitat
d.    niche
e.    disjunction

39.    The specific term used to describe plants that can draw water directly from groundwater resources are referred to as:
a.    schlerophylls
b.    xerophytes
c.    succulents
d.    phreatophytes
e.    tropophytes

40.    The specific term used to describe plants adapted to alternating wet and dry seasons are referred to as:
a.    schlerophylls
b.    xerophytes
c.    succulents
d.    phreatophytes
e.    tropophytes

41.    Which of the following features characterizes succulent plants?
a.    buttress roots
b.    long life span
c.    thick stems and leaves
d.    large leaves and long stems
e.    shallow roots

42.    Which of the following characterizes low-latitude rainforest?
a.    thick, woody lianas
b.    seasonal shedding of leaves
c.    needle-shaped leaves
d.    numerous trees spaced far apart
e.    sparse clumps of plants


43.    Which of the following characterizes steppe biomes?
a.   thick, woody lianas
b.   seasonal shedding of leaves
c.   needle-shaped leaves
d.   numerous trees spaced far apart
e.   sparse clumps of plants

44.    Which of the following characterizes mid-latitude coastal forest?
a.   thick, woody lianas
b.   seasonal shedding of leaves
c.   needle-shaped leaves
d.   trees spaced far apart
e.   sparse clumps of plants

45.    Which of the following types of soil particle is the smallest in size?
a.   sand
b.   gravel
c.   colloids
d.   clays
e.   silt

46.    A layer of weathered rock upon which a soil may form is referred to as the:
a.   bedrock
b.   humus
c.   colloids
d.   litter
e.   regolith

47. An acidic soil would have a pH of ____________; an alkaline soil would have a pH of ___________; a neutral soil would have a pH of ____________.
a.   5; 9; 7
b.   6; 8; 9
c.   9; 8; 7
d.   3; 4; 5
e.   1; 2; 3

48. The development of a light-colored, mineral rich E horizon is the direct result of which of the following processes?
a.   illuviation
b.   eluviation
c.   salinization
d.   humification
e.   transformation



49. Large masses in a soil that are grouped together to form the soil structure are referred to as:
a.   epipedons
b.   bases
c.   colloids
d.   peds
e.   horizons

50 Which of the following describes the order of soil horizons from the surface downwards?
a.   A, E, O, C, B
b.   A, O, E, B, C
c.   O, A, E, B, C
d.   O, E, A, B, C
e.   O, A, B, E, C